 |
Web Hosting by Netfirms | Free Domain Names by Netfirms |
|
|
|
If you were like me most likely you grew up in a Christian Church where you were taught over and over that the Scriptures in the New Testament are infallible and inerrant. We were given Apostle Paul’s attestation to this very fact in Second Timothy 3:16: “all Scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness.” Of course Paul was referring only to the Old Testament Jewish Scriptures with that verse since most of the New Testament had not been written yet, but who was to object if it was taken to refer to the New Testament. For after all, most "assume" that the Bible that they carry to church Sunday after Sunday could not be filled with "errors, misquotations, mistranslations, and purposeful misapplications of Old Testament passages in their New Testament"....do they?
Answer for yourself: How “righteous” is it when you purposely deceive others?
Answer for yourself: How valuable are documents reported to of importance for religious doctrine when these documents can be shown to be full of purposeful misquotations and mistranslation from the original sources (the Hebrew/Jewish Scriptures)?
Answer for yourself: How can we trust such misquotations in our New Testaments for “doctrine, reproof, correction, and instruction” when they can be shown when compared with the Hebrew Scriptures to be diametrically opposed to the original teachings they are supposed to represent?
Answer for yourself: Do you realize that if you follow a fraudulent document full of misquotations and mistranslations for your religious belief system then in reality what you choose to “believe” and “do” can often be 180 degrees opposite to both what God said and desired for you to both know and do as recorded in the Hebrew Scriptures?
Answer for yourself: Were you aware that many supposed “quotations” in the New Testament are not quotations at all, but rather Gentile creations from the Early Gentile Church and Church Fathers and Monks that serve their anti-Semitic propaganda as espoused by Rome?
Let us look into the matter.
I challenge anyone to find where these supposed “quotations” exist in the Jewish Scriptures when taken in the same context and wording as used by the original writer.Let us remember that these “supposed quotations,” are non-quotations. These “non-quotations” are read unfortunately as inspired Scripture which they are not. The Holy Spirit does not make such mistakes but men not inspired of God do and we have their record of such event in the New Testament. These false quotations served the purpose to make us belief doctrines which were foreign to the Hebrew Scriptures which were given by God
You must agree that since the New Testament bases its validity off the Hebrew Old Testament; this means that the Hebrew/Jewish Scriptures are taken as "truth" by Christians and thus cannot be wrong. But such "truth" cannot be vouched for the New Testament passages if they contradict the original passages or misquote them or are used in such a way when lifted out of their original context and twisted to give different meanings! Again, let us be very clear on this matter. "Truth" cannot be found in our Christian Bibles if they misquote, mistranslate, create passages as "quotes" that never existed in the Hebrew Scriptures and use the Hebrew Passages out of their original contexts. What we end up with is a Gentile Creationism due to this mistranslation of the Hebrew of the Jewish Bibles and sadly that is what we find in many passages in our Christian Bibles..both Old Testament and New Testament. The reason for this is simple...the Roman Church and the Essenes that preceded them had a "theological agenda" and it was not the same as Moses, the Prophets, and even the Jewish Jesus. But that understanding comes only after years of laborious study when you have covered in-depth such topics of study as Biblical history, Biblical languages, antisemitism as connected to manuscript alterations and comparisons, comparative religions, the Essenes, Alexandria, Egypt and it's influence upon the Essenes and the early church, the purposeful mistranslation of the Hebrew Scriptures as found in the Septuagint and it's errors, etc., and I could go on.
I always knew for some time now that there were differences in passages when Bibles were compared but I never dreamed while in Seminary that I would find upon my graduation and continued study the purposeful forgery of hundreds of passages in my Christian Bible when compared with the Hebrew texts. Understand that of what I speak is not a slight "difference of opinion" on how a verse is to be translated; I am speaking of the utter creation of passages that do not exist in the Hebrew oldest manuscripts that are "quoted" in New Testament and in our Old Testament as if they always existed in the Hebrew older copies....but they don't when you look to the Hebrew Bible to find such passages. They are not there!
I was utterly amazed to find out how my KJV Bible was guilty of misrepresentation of the Hebrew Old Testament in it's "translation" of it. So much for the authority of the KJV!
We cannot trust either the OT or the NT in our Christian Bibles unless we compare the these texts with the Jewish Bible....Then and only then can we be assured we have the truth as recorded in our Christian Bibles
Once you embark on this type of study you will be amazed at how many quotations by the Gospel Writers and Paul are anything but true quotations. Thus, we need to check out what we read in our Christian Bibles because upon study it can be shown that such passages often are opposite to what Moses, the Prophets, and Yeshua both said and taught.
1 Timothy 1:18
18. This charge I commit unto thee, son Timothy, according to the prophecies which went before on thee, that thou by them mightest war a good warfare;
Answer for yourself: Have you ever read in the Jewish Scriptures prophecies concerning Timothy?
There are no Old Testament prophecies pertaining to Timothy.
Ephesians 5:14
14 Wherefore he saith {it is said -- RSV}, Awake thou that sleepest, and arise from the dead, and Christ shall give thee light.
Most Christians commentators refer to two Jewish Scriptures for reference for Paul's comment. We are told to believe that in the Jewish Scriptures, in Isa. 60:1 and 26:19, that we have the reference to which Paul alludes in referring to the resurrection of Yeshua. Let us investigate these two passages and see if they refer to Yeshua’s resurrection.
Isaiah 60:1
Arise, shine; for they light is come, and the glory of the Lord is risen upon thee.
In this passage the Prophet Isaiah foresees a time when Israel will arise out of her darkness and shine with God’s glory and not the resurrection of a person.. Then the Gentile will come to the light of Israel and her Torah. Thus the sons of the strangers described in this chapter will come to Jerusalem to worship the Lord. The context of Isaiah is a national revival and has nothing to do with the resurrection of a body.
Isaiah 26:19
Thy dead men shall live, together with my dead body shall they arise. Awake and sing, ye that dwell in the dust: for thy dew is as the dew of herbs, and the earth shall cast out the dead.
The context of this verse is the general resurrection of all the dead as alluded to in Daniel 12:2 and not to a resurrection of a man prior to the consummate event of all eschatology. This is an event which is to transpire at the end of days and not 2000 years earlier in Yeshua's resurrection. Daniel refers to two resurrections, one of the righteous dead to everlasting life and another of the unrighteous to everlasting contempt. A traditional Christian dispensationalist will tell you that these two resurrections are separated by the one-thousand year reign of Christ. Again the meaning of the Jewish Scripture used from Isaiah by Paul has a context totally foreign to thy way Isaiah originally intended. Paul used the passage from Isaiah and gave it a totally different meaning. Such is a misquotation of the passage in which the original context of the author was distorted.
1 Corinthians 15:4
4 And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures: 5 And that he was seen of Cephas, then of the twelve: 6 After that, he was seen of above five hundred brethren at once; of whom the greater part remain unto this present, but some are fallen asleep.
Answer for yourself: Where in the Gospels does it say that Peter saw Yeshua before the other apostles?
No gospel says that Peter (Cephas) saw Yeshua before the 12 or saw Yeshua 1st after the resurrection.
Answer for yourself: Where in the Gospels does it say that 500 people saw Yeshua after he was raised from the death?
No gospel says 500 people saw Yeshua after the resurrection. But more troubling than that is that such a dramatic occurrence, which would have easily brought the religious establishment to their knees, is totally without corroboration outside of this single reference by Paul for no historical document or writer mentions such an event and surely this would have gotten somebody's attention.
Answer for yourself: In 1 Corinthians 15:4 Paul says that Yeshua was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures.
Answer for yourself: Where in the Jewish Scriptures is the death of Yeshua predicted with his resurrection foretold for 3 days later?
It simply is not there. Paul is speaking as if the Jewish Scriptures prophesied of Yeshua's death and resurrection 3 days later and such a statement is not true.
Hebrews 10:5
It is debatable that Paul is the author of the book of Hebrews. But for the sake of argument let us say he is at the moment.
5 Wherefore when he cometh into the world, he saith, Sacrifice and offering thou wouldest not, but a body hast thou prepared me: 6 In burnt offerings and [sacrifices] for sin thou hast had no pleasure.
The above passage is a quotation from Psalms 40:6..
Answer for yourself: Does the book of Hebrews, believed to be inspired and infallible by millions of believers today, quote accurately Psalm 40:6?
Notice the difference for yourself
As taken from the Hebrew text of Psalm 40:6 we find something rather startling that contradicts the inspired writings of Hebrews.
6. Sacrifice and offering thou didst not desire; mine ears hast thou opened (in order to hear the Torah of God): burnt offering and sin offering hast thou not required.
Answer for yourself: How does "mine ears has thou opened" become "a body Thou has prepared for me?
Answer for yourself: Does Paul quote Psalm 40:6 correctly in Hebrews 10:5? No way.
Paul misapplies or misquotes (or someone later to his letters) Psalms 40:6. "A body hast thou prepared me" is not in Psalms. Paul omits "mine ears hast thou opened". Nowhere in the New Testament did Yeshua say these things either.
Romans 2:24
24 For the name of God is blasphemed among the Gentiles through you, as it is written.
Again the context of the quote is totally foreign to the way Paul used the quote. Quoting from Isa. 52:5 we find that the name of God was blasphemed by the Gentiles who took captive the Jewish nation when all the while their God was to be their defender. God was mocked by the heathen and not the Jews because of the plight of the Jewish people and the heathen assumed the God of the Jew's was impotent as He was unable to defend them and prevent their captivity. What the heathen failed to understand is that such captivity was a punishment upon the Jewish people and not indicative of the impotence of God in protecting and saving His people.
But Paul again completely distorts the Hebrew Scriptures. In Romans we are led by Paul to believe that the name of God was blasphemed again by the Gentiles because the Jews don't keep their own Law. The context of the quote used by Paul is completely different. Such is ludicrous, for any casual attempt to study the Judaism in the first century will show the dedication of Pharisees, Sadducees, and Essenes to scrupulously keeping the Law. That was one of Yeshua's problems with the religions establishment…they neglected the weightier matters of the Torah due to preoccupation of the nuances of the Oral Law. They strained at a gnat and swallowed a camel. So we find Paul lifting verses out of context and using them in such a fashion to paint the Jews in a bad light because they don't agree with his particular Messianic beliefs; but again few did for Paul, or the "Romanized Paul" as presented in the New Testament shares his own brand of a unique synthesis of Judaism, Zoroastrianism and Sun-worship in his Messianic belief and normative Judaism would have none of that. This whole thing of which just touched one passage is indicative of the Paul Problem in the New Testament which goes unnoticed by most because their lack of study into the true origins of the Christian faith.
Matthew 12:5
5 Or have ye not read in the law, how that on the sabbath days the priests in the temple profane the sabbath, and are blameless?
Nowhere does the Old Testament state that priests in the temple profaned the sabbath, and are blameless.
Matthew 23:35
35 That upon you may come all the righteous blood shed upon the earth, from the blood of righteous Abel unto the blood of Zacharias son of Barachias, whom ye slew between the temple and the altar.
This may come as a shock to you but the name Barachias is not in the Old Testament In the Old Testament Zacharias is the son of Jehoida, not Barachias as it is shown in 2 Chron. 24:20-22.
Matthew 26:56
56 But, all this was done, that the scriptures of the prophets might be fulfilled. Then all the disciples forsook him, and fled.
This event, the forsaking of Yeshua at his crucifixion, is not in the Jewish Old Testament at all. This is just one example among numerous of the creation of prophecies that did not exist in the Hebrew Scriptures.
Mark 1:2
2 As it is written in the prophets {in Isaiah, the prophet -- RSV}, Behold, I send my messenger before thy face, which shall prepare thy way before thee.
No such statement exists in Isaiah or the Old Testament.
Mark 9:13
13 But I say unto you, That Elias is indeed come, and they have done unto him whatsoever they listed, as it is written of him.
There are no predictions in the Old Testament of things that were to happen to Elias.
Luke 24:46
46 And said unto them, Thus it is written, and thus it behoved Christ to suffer, and to rise from the dead the third day:
Nothing is written in the Old Testament about Yeshua as the Christ rising from the dead, especially on the 3rd day. This "3rd" day stuff comes right out of blatant "literalized" and "historicized" Sun Worship and has for thousands and thousands of years and the Gospel writers who passed themselves off as Jewish apostles were into Sun-worship; that is why we find so much of it in the New Testament.
John 1:45
45 Philip findeth Nathaniel, and saith unto him, We have found him, of whom Moses in the law, and the prophets, did write, Yeshua of Nazareth, the son of Joseph.
This will be hard for you to deal with [that is until you begin to seriously study your faith] but I have come to the conclusion that none of the Old Testament prophets nor Moses wrote about Yeshua. We as Christians have been conditioned over the years, due to hearing poor teaching by our spiritual leadership, to read into the text prior beliefs espoused by this or that denomination about Yeshua. We can read anything into the text if we violate the laws of interpretation and that is done all the time! That is what I am trying to say and warn the Christian community. You can say "this" or "that" refers to Yeshua, but for the document called the Old Testament to hold credibility is has to stand up to the same criteria of interpretation that the New Testament is held to. That means before your apply a text to Yeshua as a "fulfillment" there has to be a prior "peshat" interpretation (literal). There are four levels of Biblical interpretation for Jewish literature. First we have the "peshat" or the literal and plain ordinary meaning. If Yeshua did not in his life accomplish the same exact event, then any reference to fulfilling a previous prophecy is ludicrous. We must not take out of the original context of the writer events and try to apply them to Yeshua. If God is behind it He does not need our help to "fudge" to make it fit or apply to Jesus. Before you have any allegorical or methaphorical interpretation we must again have the literal and real event (peshat). If said event is missing literally from Yeshua's life or can be proven less than authentic, then all the allegorical allusions are worthless. Next if there is to be any mystical interpretation to the events in Yeshua's life as fulfillment of Scripture then again the literal-plain ordinary event must be demonstrable without twisting the facts to make it fit our pre-formed theologies about Yeshua. I know this is hard, but necessary if you want the truth. Again this is startling for most but if you have read these articles up to now just remember how we have exposed error after error taught as truth for years now. I understand that of utmost importance for most is if Yeshua is Messiah. If you have read you now know that the true Messianic prophecies remain unfulfilled and that is the "mark" of whom the Messiah is to be and without their fulfillment it is impossible to know. The Jews have been saying this for 2 thousand years and they are right. Time will tell whom the Messiah is for sure but more textual manipulations as we showed above in just "touching" the surface of the corruptions in our Christian Bibles is just a little example of such textual manipulations that went into the creation of "Messianic prophecies" in presenting this Jewish Jesus to the Gentile world as the fulfillment of Israel's Messiah. The Jews would have nothing of it because they knew their Scriptures and the corruptions of it in the Greek translation of them and the later Latin and English Bibles. When Messiah comes and fulfills the prophecies of the Prophets and Moses we can ask him his name and if he has been here before. Due to the overwhelming forgeries within the New Testament and the lack of actual "peshat" fulfillment of the prophecies of Moses and the Prophets we must await the coming of Messiah to 100% be certain of his identity.
John 7:38
38 He that believeth on me, as the scripture hath said, out of his belly shall flow rivers of living water.
Again this passage is not to be found anywhere in the Old Testament. It is not in Isa. 44:3, Isa 55:1, Ezek. 47:1, and Isa 58:11.
John 20:9
9 For as yet they knew not the scripture, that he must rise again from the dead.
There is no Old Testament statement that Yeshua must rise from the dead, or that Yeshua must rise again. For that matter there is NO Hebrew Scripture that is not forged or mistranslated on purpose that speaks of the Messiah being killed and rising from the dead. You have to go to the purposefully misquoted and mistranslated Greek texts to find that idea and then it is not explicit but ambiguous at best. For a Jewish child who had the Torah memorized I find it hard to understand how such Scripture oriented people "knew not their own Scripture." If anything it was the Gentile writers of our Christian Bibles who knew them not!
Acts 20:35
35 I have shewed you all things, how that so labouring ye ought to support the weak, and to remember the words of the Lord Yeshua, how he said, It is more blessed to give than to receive.
To the best of recorded knowledge at present, Yeshua did not say "It is more blessed to give than to receive."
Hebrews 11:35
35 Women received their dead raised to life again: and others were tortured, not accepting deliverance; that they might obtain a better resurrection:
Nowhere in the Old Testament does it say that people suffered torture because they expected to rise again to a better life.
Matthew 3:3
3 For this is he that was spoken of by the prophet Esaias (Isaiah--Ed.), saying, 'The voice of one crying in the wilderness, Prepare ye the way of the Lord, make his paths straight'
This is an inaccurate translation of Isa. 40:3 as seen in the Hebrew Tanakh
3 ¶ Hark! one calleth: 'Clear ye in the wilderness the way of the LORD, make plain in the desert a highway for our God.
Nothing is said in Isaiah about one crying in the wilderness. The present tense verb "that crieth" shows that Isaiah is not making a prophecy but only speaking of a contemporary of his day and time and has not intention of referring to anyone in the futher....let alone John the Baptist! Matthew has "paths," (pl.) while Isaiah has "a highway"(singluar). Again one would expect better from the Holy Spirit if He had anything to do with the writing of such documents that misquote the Holy Word of God.
Matt. 4:10
4 Then Jesus saith unto him, 'Get thee hence Satan: for it is written, Thou shalt worship the Lord thy God, and him only shalt thou serve'
This is a terrible and major distortion of Deut. 6:13 which does not say this at all as we see from the following verse taken again from the Hebrew Tanakh:
13 Thou shalt fear the LORD thy God; and Him shalt thou serve, and by His name shalt thou swear.
Nowhere does Deut. 6:13 say thou shalt serve God only and we see again words added to the text and the Word of God that simply are not there in the oldest Hebrew texts.
Matt. 4:13-16
And leaving Nazareth, he (Jesus) came and dwelt in Capernaum.... That it might be fulfilled which was spoken by Esaias the prophet saying, 'The land of Zabulon, and the land of Nephthalim, by the way of the sea, beyond Jordan, Galilee of the Gentiles; The people which sat in darkness saw great light; and to them which sat in the region and shadow of death light is sprung up
This is a misquotation of Isa. 9:1-2 as seen from the passage taken from the Hebrew Tanakh:
1 ¶ (8:23) For is there no gloom to her that was stedfast? Now the former hath lightly afflicted the land of Zebulun and the land of Naphtali, but the latter hath dealt a more grievous blow by the way of the sea, beyond the Jordan, in the district of the nations. 2 (9:1) The people that walked in darkness have seen a great light; they that dwelt in the land of the shadow of death, upon them hath the light shined.
The writer of the Gospel of Matthew falsified the text. He began his quote where there is not even a comma and thereby cut off everything relating to the first affliction. He then left out all that related to the 2nd affliction. He left out everything making the verse intelligible. He extracted just what he wanted. Matthew left out those words that show Isaiah was speaking of some past events relating to afflictions already suffered and had no thought of any event "future." The "great light" which the people saw was the joy they felt in having their burdens lifted and their oppressor broken; it was not Jesus. Isaiah says the people that "walked" in darkness, not "sat" in darkness. "Walked," "have seen," and "hath shined" show that the events have already occurred and again has no future application to Jesus. Everything in Isaiah relates to two circumstances that had already occurred when Isaiah wrote. One refers to the lands of Zebulon and Naphtali being lightly afflicted. The other refers to the more grievous events that happened afterwards by way of the sea.
Matt. 11:10
For this is he, of whom it is written, 'Behold, I send my messenger before thy face, which shall prepare thy way before thee"
This is a purposeful misquotes of Mal. 3:1 as seen from the Hebrew Tanakh:
1 ¶ Behold, I will send My messenger, and he shall clear the way before Me; and the Lord, whom ye seek, will suddenly come to His temple, and the messenger of the covenant, whom ye delight in, behold, he cometh, saith the LORD of hosts.
The OT says "the way before me," not "thy way before thee." The writer of the Gospel of Matthew created the phrase "before thy face" which does not exist in Malachi. As is true in much of the Bible, it is unclear as to whom many of the pronouns refer. There is little reason to believe that Malachi is referring to John the Baptist or Jesus. Mal. 3:1 says "will send" (future tense) rather than "send." The coming of the Lord in Malachi 4:1 ("For Behold, the day cometh, that shall burn as an oven; and all the proud, yea, and all that do wickedly, shall be stubble....") and Mal. 4:5 ("Behold, I will send you Elijah the prophet before the great and terrible day of the Lord comes") are scenes of fear and terror like the day of judgment. Yet, the coming of Jesus was always spoken of as a time of joy and happiness.
Answer for yourself: How, then, could the scene in Malachi be referring to the birth of Jesus as some allege? Again verses have been lifted out of their original context and twisted to make them refer to Jesus when the original writer had no such intention. Again we find "created Messianic prophecy" when in reality we have none!
Matthew 12:17-21
17 That it might be fulfilled which was spoken by Esaias (Isaiah--Ed.) the prophet, saying, Behold my servant, whom I have chosen; my beloved, in whom my soul is well pleased: I will put my spirit upon him, and he shall shew judgment to the Gentiles. He shall not strive nor cry; neither shall any man hear his voice in the streets. A bruised reed shall he not break, and smoking flax shall he not quench, till he send forth judgment unto victory. And in his name shall the Gentiles trust
This passage is said to apply to Isa. 42:1-4 as seen from the Hebrew Tanakh:
1 ¶ Behold My servant, whom I uphold; Mine elect, in whom My soul delighteth; I have put My spirit upon him, he shall make the right to go forth to the nations. 2 He shall not cry, nor lift up, nor cause his voice to be heard in the street. 3 A bruised reed shall he not break, and the dimly burning wick shall he not quench; he shall make the right to go forth according to the truth. 4 He shall not fail nor be crushed, till he have set the right in the earth; and the isles shall wait for his teaching (Law).
The Gospel writer want us to think that Matt. 12: 17-21 refer to Jesus but this is a major distortion for many reasons. Isaiah says "have put" (past tense) rather than "will put" and could not refer to Jesus whom is not born yet. "Not strive" isn't in Isaiah. "Nor lift up" is in Isaiah but not Matthew. "Streets" in Matthew is "street" (singular) in Isaiah. "Victory" in Matthew is "truth" in Isaiah. There is no conditional "till" in Isaiah. "In his name shall the Gentiles trust" is not in Isaiah. This phrase is completely made up and for a very good reason; let us not forget that the early Gentile Church was not trying to sell "Jesus" to the Jews but rather to the non-Jews of the world. The Jewish people knew better and refused to accept this Gentile creation of Jesus as the Messiah after he was transformed into a Sun-godman. And it appears Matthew omitted, "He shall not fail nor be discouraged, till he have set judgment in the earth: and the isles shall wait for his law" because "the Law" was not something they wanted to follow in their lives like the Jewish people who loved God's Law and instruction.
Matthew 13:35
35 That it might be fulfilled which was spoken by the prophet saying, I will open my mouth in parables; I will utter things which have been kept secret from the foundation of the world
This is an inaccurate portrayal of Psalm 78:2-3 as seen from the Hebrew Tankah:
2 I will open my mouth with a parable; I will utter dark sayings concerning days of old; 3 That which we have heard and known, and our fathers have told us,
Psalm 78 says nothing about "things which have been kept secret since the world began." It only says they were dark sayings of old. Again we find creationism in the quoting of the Holy Word of God. These sayings refer to old sayings, not things which have been kept secret but understand that if you are teaching a different Messiah than that of the Jews then it is you who have this unknown "secret knowledge." This is nothing more than Gnosticism again and we find it often in the New Testament when salvation comes from secret knowledge that you have that others do not and Paul and others are prefect examples of this. "Which we have heard and known, and our fathers have told us" is the opposite of secret. I hope you see this for yourself. And Psalm 78 says "a parable," while Matthew says "parables."
Matthew 21:16
16 Yea; have ye never read, Out of the mouth of babes and sucklings thou hast perfected praise
This again is not a reproduction of Psalm 8:2 as seen from the Hebrew Tanakh:
Out of the mouth of babes and sucklings hast thou ordained strength because of thine enemies....
Answer for yourself: What does "perfecting praise" have to do with "ordaining strength because of thine enemies"?
Luke 4:17-21
17 And there was delivered unto him the book of the prophet Esaias (Isaiah-Ed.). And when he had opened the book, he found the place where it was written. 'The Spirit of the Lord is upon me, because he hath anointed me to preach the gospel to the poor; he hath sent me to heal the brokenhearted, to preach deliverance to the captives, and recovering of sight to the blind, to set at liberty them that are bruised. To preach the acceptable year of the Lord; and he closed the book, and gave it again to the minister, and sat down.... And he began to say unto them, This day is the scripture fulfilled in your ears")
The Gospel writer has Jesus misquoting Isaiah 61:1-2 as seen below as taken from the Hebrew Tanakh:
1 ¶ The spirit of the Lord GOD is upon me; because the LORD hath anointed me to bring good tidings unto the humble; He hath sent me to bind up the broken-hearted, to proclaim liberty to the captives, and the opening of the eyes to them that are bound; 2 To proclaim the year of the LORD'S good pleasure, and the day of vengeance of our God; to comfort all that mourn;
Isaiah says nothing about healing the blind. Isaiah says "opening of the prison to them that are bound" not "to set at liberty them that are bruised." The Gospel writer has Jesus leaving out proclaiming "the day of vengeance of our God" in Isaiah. The statement in Isaiah was made by Isaiah concerning himself, long before Jesus was born. It can't be twisted into proving that Jesus was anointed although he was. Actually, what Jesus is quoting is a statement by Isaiah that he (Isaiah--Ed.) has been appointed by God to tell the exiled, broken, downtrodden, afflicted, captive Jews that the day is coming when they shall be saved and eat the riches of the Gentiles and have eternal joy.
John 19:37
37 And again another scripture saith, They shall look on him whom they pierced
This is an incorrect representation of Zech. 12:10 as seen below from the Hebrew Tanakh:
10 And I will pour upon the house of David, and upon the inhabitants of Jerusalem, the spirit of grace and of supplication; and they shall look toward Me because of those whom they have stabbed: they shall mourn for him, as one mourneth for his only son, and shall be in bitterness for him, as one that is in bitterness over a [deceased] first-born.
Verses cannot be taken out of context or altered if we ever hope to have the true meaning associated with them. The statement in Zechariah has nothing to do with Jesus. Zechariah is saying that God will make Judah and Jerusalem very powerful in the future, such that those nations who attack them will be destroyed. There is going to be a war and we see this building daily in the news. In this war the people of Jerusalem will look with compassion and mourning on those they have pierced and killed. The interest in the life of one's fellow man will be deeply felt in the latter days. Understand the grief is over those that they had to kill in this war. I direct your attention to the word "as." Let us think. Why say "as" when Jesus is a son of the house of David? The grief over these dead will be "as if" they were family which they are not. These are non-Jews who die when fighting Israel yet Israel will mourn for them as if they were one of their own. Understand "as" is referring to a comparison....not the identical. The Jew will be mourning for the non-Jewish dead as if they were "Jewish dead." It would make no sense to have the house of David responsible for Jesus' death when that is the house from which Jesus arose. Would his own house kill him? Zech. 12:11 says, "In that day shall there be a great mourning in Jerusalem." Actually, there was very little mourning for Jesus on the day he died in a city that had swollen at Passover to over 6 million as Josephus tells us. The death of Jesus was done in secret and only few knew it as Rome crucified according to estimates up to as many as 500 a day. If correctly translated "pierced" should be "blasphemed." Both "blasphemed" and "pierced" come from the same Hebrew root. And "Upon me whom they have pierced" is questionable. How could they pierce God (Jehovah) who is the speaker?
Acts 1:20
20 For it is written in the Book of Psalms, Let his habitation be desolate, and let no man dwell therein: and his bishopric let another take
This is again a distortion of Psalm 69:25 as taken from the Hebrew Tanakh:
25 (69:26) Let their encampment be desolate; let none dwell in their tents.
Psalm 69:25 says "their" habitation and "their" tents and not "his." We have a clumsy attempt to again make a prophecy refer to Jesus when the original author never meant it as such. The writer of the book of Acts tells his readers "for it is written in the book of Psalms" but as you see it is not. We have again the corruption of the Bible Jesus used. At no time does this passage in Psalms refer to one person or "his." Psalm 69:25 is actually an appeal by David to God for aid in David's struggle with his enemies (plural and not singular).
Now let us focus on "his bishopric let another take." This is a distortion of Psalm 109:8
8 Let his days be few; let another take his charge.
Here we have the combination of two passages into one by the writer of Acts and he misrepresents them both but the uneducated Gentile readers would not be equipped with full understanding of the Hebrew Scriptures to spot it. Psalm 109:8 says nothing about a bishopric. Office and bishopric are not identical but surely you can see the editing of the early Gentile Roman Church in their "doctoring" of the manuscripts especially in light of the teaching of Cyprian in 3rd century that there is no salvation outside of the "bishopric." The Psalmist is referring to his enemies, not Judas. David is saying he hopes his enemies are punished. The context of Psalm 109:8 shows it is not a prophecy of David about Judas.
Acts 2:16-17
16 But this is that which was spoken by the prophet Joel; and it shall come to pass in the last days, saith God....
This is a perversion of Joel 2:28 as seen in the Hebrew Tanakh:
28 ¶ (3:1) And it shall come to pass afterward, that I will pour out My spirit upon all flesh; and your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, your old men shall dream dreams, your young men shall see visions;
Joel says nothing about "the last days."
These are but a few of the hundreds of examples that exist. We deal with these and other problems on our various websites in hopes of educating the Christian to the deceptions to which we have fallen in Western Roman Christianity. The Messiah and his identity are not the most important issues in one's relationship with God but Rome has made it such in creating a religion about Jesus instead of teaching and following the faith and religion of Jesus. In so doing they had to corrupt the Hebrew Bible to do it and that they did. They were not the first however to corrupt the Hebrew Scriptures as pagan Astro-theology was previously written into the Greek translation of the Hebrew Scriptures by the Essenes and it would be these same Essenes who would later instruct in Alexandria, Egypt, the Greek and Latin Fathers of the Gentile Church. Later Rome would take prominence but it all flows together. They both were into Sun-worship and these ideas and concepts were first written into the Greek and later incorporated and elaborated upon in the Latin and English versions of what we call today the Christian Bible. These purposefully misquotations, mistranslation, and verses lifted out of context were done to transform a human Messiah into a Godman and we accept such idolatry and blasphemy today without question because our precious religious documents are corrupted and we don't know it. We set in our churches and carry our black Holy Bibles don't know of these things because we have never read or owned the true Word of God before...or studied it for that matter...I refer to the Hebrew Bible that Jesus used. It is a tragic thing that we can lives and die as Christians and followers of Jesus and NEVER have read the uncorrupted Word of God in our lives. Such is the legacy we have inherited from the Anti-Semitic Church Fathers and the Essenes.
The bottom line dear child of God...we have trusted in a document for our salvation and eternal life which is a repudiation and an adulteration of the only one which truly reveals the way...the Bible Yeshua used...the Holy Tanakh..the Hebrew Bible. Today we have Hebrew/English Bibles that will reveal to you these hundreds of falsifications and forgeries that exist in our Christian Bibles. There is hope. You can still learn the truth about Jesus before it was altered. You can see these corruptions and forgeries for yourself and repent of the idolatry and blasphemy they have taught you. May all those who truly love the LORD and His Word....read it and study it as it exists today in the Stone Edition Tanakh or the JPS Hebrew/English Bible. You can order these Bibles online at www.artscroll.com or Barnes and Noble or Boarders book stores or even at www.amazon.com. But understand as a Christian who reads the Christian Old and New Testaments you don't have the truth about God or His revelation in your Christian Bible.....but that can change. The examples above or only that; examples that expose the tip of the iceberg. It is time to find the truth about God and His Messiah and Jesus as well. Shalom.
